Re: [moca] On the definition of bisimulation

[Pietro Braione <braione@xxxxxxxxxxxxxx>]

Thank you for your answer. However, with the
last phrase in my previous post I did not mean
to question the fact that ~1 = ~2, rather to
ask if this fact is the reason why authors do
not bother too much about assuming definition
1 rather than 2.

Pietro

 
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